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What is one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan?
The entire route must be within radar environment.
Under what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight plan containing a special or privately owned IAP?
Upon approval of the owner.
To assure expeditious hangling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word "LIFEGUARD" should be entered in which section of the flight plan?
Remarks block
When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?
The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.
An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if
the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored.
When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are condidered marginal for a domestic air carrier's operation, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take?
List at least one additional alternate airport.
An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours  when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be
at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum.
When is a supplemental air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each destination airport within the 48 contiguous United States?
On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the destination.
Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport
when the flight arrives.
The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are
those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives.
An alternate airport for departure is required
if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.
What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane?
1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.
If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?
Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
When aa departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight ,it must be located at a distance not greater than
2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one enigine not functioning.
A pilot is operating in Class G airspace.  If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
entering controlled airspace.
What minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance "cleared as filed" include?
Destination airport, en route altitude, and DP, if appropriate.
An ATC "instruction"
is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action.
What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?
Request a clarification from ATC.
What is the pilot's responsibility for clearance or instruction readback?
Except for SIDs, read back altitude assignments, altitude restrictions, and vectors.
What is the normal procedure for IFR departures at locations with pretaxi clearance programs?
Pilots request IFR clearance 10 minutes or less prior to taxi, then request taxi clearance from ground control.
What is the purpose of the term "hold for release" when included in an IFR clearance?
A procedure for delaying departure for traffic volume, weather, or need to issue further instructions.
What action should the pilot take when "gate hold" procedures are in effect?
Contact ground control prior to starting engines for sequencing.
What special consideration is given for turbine powered aircraft when "gate hold" procedures are in effect?
They are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warm up block.
Under what condition does a pilot receive a "void time" specified in the clearance?
On an uncontrolled airport.
Under what condition may a pilot cancel an IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?
Only if in VFR conditions in other than Class A airspace.
You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16.  The controller issues the following taxi instructions: "N123, taxi to runway 16"  Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions?
5 (five)
When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane?
1/2 SM.

also for four engine aircraft.
An airport is not listed in a Domestic Air Carrier's Operations Specifications and does not have the prescribed takeoff weather minimums.  What are the minimum weather conditions required for takeoff?
800-2
The weather conditions that meet the minimum requirements for a flag air carrier to take off from an alternate airport that is not listed in the Operations Specifications are
800-2, 900-1 1/2, or 1,000-1
The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier's Operations Specificatios (takeoff minimums are not prescrebed for that airport) is
1,000 - 1, 900 - 1 1/2, or 800 - 2
When an alternate airport outside the United States has no prescribed takeoff minimums and is not listed in a Flag Air Carrier's Operations Specifications, the minimum weather conditions that will meet the requirements for takeoff is
900 - 1 1/2
What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?
A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot.
When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
On tower frequency
When simultaneous ILS approaches are in porgress, which of the following should approach control be advised of immediately?
Any inoperative or malfunctioning aircraft receivers.
When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
When cleared to execute a published side-step maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
While being vectored to the final approach course of an IFR approach, when may the pilot descend to published altitudes?
Only when approach control clears the flight for the approach.
What action should be taken when a pilot is "cleared for approach" while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?
Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment.
What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach?  The pilot
must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes.
What action(s) should a pilot take if vectored across the final apprach course during an IFR approach?
Contact approach control, and advise that the flight is crossing the final approach course.
The Instrument Approach Procedure Chart top margin identification is VOR or GPS RWY 25, AL-5672 (FAA), LUKACHUKAI, ARIZONA.  In what phase of the approach overlay program is the GPS approach?
Phase III
The weather forecast requires an alternate for LUKACHUKAI (GPS RWY 25) ARIZONA.  The alternate airport must have an approved instrument approach procedure, which is anticipated to be opertional and available at the estimated time of arrival, other than
GPS.
Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the
pilot-in-command
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