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Control instruments are:
(1) Display attitude and power; (2) Are calibrated to permit definite adjustments to attitude and (or) power
Performance instruments:
Include the altimeter
Pilots or other crewmembers who can modify the cockpit display configuration must ensure primary flight instrumentation is always present. Primary flight instrumentation must provide:
(1) An immediately discernible attitude recognition capability and an unusual attitude recovery capability; (2) Full-time attitude
Prior to initiating unusual attitude recovery on the attitude indicator verify _____.
That an unusual attitude exists
The TO-FROM indicator on the course indicator IS/IS NOT affected by the aircraft heading.
Is NOT affected by the aircraft heading
If there is a malfunction of the compass system or compass card
the VOR or TACAN bearing pointers must be _____.
VOR and VOR/DME station passage occurs: _____
When the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change to FROM
With TACAN - station passage is determined when _____
the range indicator stops decreasing.
Required Navigation Performance Type (RNP) is a value stating the actual position of the aircraft for at least 95% of the total flying time from the intended position of that aircraft. This ‘must remain within’ value is typical expressed in _____
Nautical Miles
After setting the reported altimeter setting – the maximum error allowed when comparing the indicated altitude to the elevation of a known ground checkpoint is: _____
75 feet
Cold weather altimeter corrections are designed to adjust published instrument approach procedure altitudes to ensure adequate obstacle clearance. This adjustment becomes important in temperatures lower than standard since: _____
The aircraft’s altitude is below the figure indicated by the altimeter
MAJCOMs allowing aircraft to fly an instrument approach procedure using a lower category must publish procedures to ensure that the aircraft do not exceed _____
TERPS airspace for the IAP being flown to induce circling and missed approach.
An aircraft can fly an IAP only for _____
Only for its own category or higher unless authorized by MAJCOM directives
The NAVAIDs which appear in the name of an IAP _____
are those that provide the final approach guidance.
If an IAF is displayed on an IAP by name only (no defining NAVAID and radial/DME): _____
refer to the appropriate enroute and terminal charts for the area for this information (AFMAN 217V1 6.5.4.1.2)
If you are required to fly a circling approach which does not have a published ceiling – you can determine the required ceiling using which method?
Add 100 feet to the HAA and then round up to the next one hundred foot value.
The maximum allowable CDI error when checking the VOR or TACAN at a designated ground checkpoint is: _____
+/- 4 deg
When checking the TACAN at a designated ground checkpoint – the allowable error is: _____
½ mile or 3% of the distance to the facility; +/- 4 deg; whichever is greater
If the aircraft is equipped with dual VOR or dual TACAN receivers
the systems are considered reliable if _____
For an IFR departure procedure – USAF aircraft ARE/ARE NOT authorized to create their own “see-and-avoid” weather minimums in lieu of meeting the required minimum climb gradient.
ARE NOT
For IFR departure procedure – USAF aircraft ARE/ARE NOT authorized to use non-standard takeoff weather minimums to “see-and-avoid” obstacles only if specific MAJCOM authorization exists.
ARE
While flying any type of iFR departure procedure – USAF aircraft are required to meet or exceed a climb gradient of at least _____.
200 feet per NM unless a higher gradient is published.
Unless a higher gradient is published – USAF aircraft are required to meet or exceed _____ on all IFR departures.
200 feet per nautical mile.
USAF pilots flying SIDs in the USA must: _____
(1) Plan to cross the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet AGL for SIDs produced by the U.S. Army; (2) Plan to cross the departure end of the runway at least 35 AGL for SIDs produced by the FAA;
Basic rules for all IFR departures include – Delay all turns until _____
Until at least 400 feet above the runway end elevation unless an early turn is specifically required by the departure procedure.
Unless otherwise instructed – you are expected to hold in a standard holding pattern. A standard holding pattern (no wind) consists of: _____
Right turns; 1 minute inbound when holding at or below 14000 feet and 1 ½ minutes when holding above 14000 feet.
The standard no-wind length of the inbound leg of a holding pattern is: _____
1 minute at or below 14000 MSL and 1 ½ minutes above 14000 feet MSL.
You may use the teardrop holding pattern entry at your own discretion when on a heading conveniently aligned with the teardrop course. Excluding procedure turns - the teardrop course is defined as an outbound track with an angular difference of _____ from the outbound course on the holding side.
45 deg or less
The “AIM Method” is a holding technique which includes which entries?
Parallel; Teardrop; Direct
Begin outbound timing in the holding pattern when: _____
Either (1) Abeam the fix; (2) Wings level outbound
You are established in a holding pattern that has a published minimum holding altitude and are assigned an altitude above the minimum. In this situation – when may you descend to the minimum holding altitude?
When cleared for the approach
Prior to starting an enroute descent – you should: _____
(1) Review the IAP; (2) Recheck weather and coordinate lost communication procedures (if required); (3) Check heading and attitude systems;
You are enroute to a holding fix not collocated with the IAF and subsequently cleared for the approach. You are/may _____:
(1) You are expected to proceed to the IAF via the holding fix; (2) You may proceed directly to the IAF if specifically cleared to do so; (3) If the IAF is located along the route of flight to the holding fix - you are expected to begin the approach at the IAF;
While being radar vectored – you should _____.
Repeat all headings; altitudes; and altimeter settings;
When being radar vectored for the final approach portion of the IAP – you should remain oriented in relation to the FAF. Once cleared for the approach: _____
Maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until established on a segment of the published routing or IAP.
You are receiving radar vectors to an ILS final approach and are subsequently cleared for the approach. You should _____.
Maintain the last assigned altitude and heading until established on a segment of the published approach.
If you are cleared to “Descend Via” a published standard terminal arrival (STAR) you: _____.
Must adhere to published altitude crossing restrictions and speeds unless otherwise cleared.
T/F – Before filing or accepting a clearance for a STAR – ensure you can comply with any altitude and/or airspeed restrictions associated with the procedure.
True
When the IAP depicts Dead Reckoning (DR) courses you should: ______.
(1) Attempt to fly the depicted ground track as closely as possible by applying wind corrections; (2) Use lead points onto and off of DR legs
A procedure turn will not be flown when: _____.
(SNERT) (1) You were issued clearance for a straight-in; (2) The initial approach is via a NOPT course; (3) The holding course and procedure turn course are the same;
T/F - The 80/260 course reversal maneuver consists of intercepting and maintaining the procedure turn course outbound – an 80 deg turn away from the outbound track toward the maneuvering side followed by an immediate 260 deg turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound course.
True
Descent below MDA is not authorized until sufficient reference has been established with the runway environment and the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing. What are considered to be part of the runway environment?
(1) The visual approach slope indicator; (2) The approach lighting system; (3) The threshold
In the U.S. – the glideslope; the localizer and the outer marker are required components for an ILS. If the outer marker is not available; it may be replaced by substitutes depicted on the approach plate or identified by NOTAM. These substitutes include _____.
DME; A crossing radial or another NAVAID; RADAR
You are executing an ILS approach and after intercepting the glide slope your GSI indicates two dots above the glide slope. What action is required?
Do not descend below localizer minima; If the glide slope is recaptured
The circling MDA for ASR approaches are found: _____.
In front of the FLIP Terminal book.
The circling MDA found on the individual IAP applies/refers to: _____.
Refers only to non-RADAR approaches.
If a straight-in approach is being flown – what are required concerning ASR approaches?
(1) The controller must inform the pilot of the straight-in MDA; (2) Descent to the published MDA should be completed prior to the MAP; (3) Fly at the MDA until arrival at the MAP or until visual contact is made with the runway environment;
You are on an IFR flight plan operating in VMC. ATC clears you for a visual approach. ATC expects you to: _____.
Execute a straight-in unless otherwise requested.
A visual approach is an approach where an aircraft on an IFR flight plan - operating under the control and authorization of an ATC facility – may proceed to the destination airport visually and clear of clouds. When cleared for a visual approach you should:_____.
Be aware that radar service is automatically terminated when instructed to change to advisory frequency.
You are flying an approach to an airfield which has a reported partial obscuration due to fog. Considerations on the approach include: _____.
(1) Runway Visual Range (RVR) may not be representative of actual conditions in this situation; (2) You may see the approach lighting system and possibly even some of the runway during the early stages of the approach; (3) As the fog level is entered – most or all visual cues become confused and disoriented;
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