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17. If an access control has a fail-safe characteristic but not a fail-secure characteristic, what does that mean? A. It defaults to no access. B. It defaults to being unlocked. C. It defaults to being locked. D. It defaults to sounding a remote alarm instead of a local alarm.
17. B. A fail-safe setting means that if a power disruption affected the automated locking system, the doors would default to being unlocked. A fail-secure configuration means a door would default to being locked if there were any problems with the power.
1. What is the first step that should be taken when a fire has been detected? A. Turn off the HVAC system and activate fire door releases. B. Determine which type of fire it is. C. Advise individuals within the building to leave. D. Activate the fire suppression system.
1. C. Human life takes precedence. Although the other answers are important steps in this type of situation, the first step is to warn others and save as many lives as possible.
2. A company needs to implement a CCTV system that will monitor a large area outside the facility. Which of the following is the correct lens combination for this? A. A wide-angle lens and a small lens opening B. A wide-angle lens and a large lens opening C. A wide-angle lens and a large lens opening with a small focal length D. A wide-angle lens and a large lens opening with a large focal length
2. A. The depth of field refers to the portion of the environment that is in focus when shown on the monitor. The depth of field varies depending upon the size of the lens opening, the distance of the object being focused on, and the focal length of the lens. The depth of field increases as the size of the lens opening decreases, the subject distance increases, or the focal length of the lens decreases. So if you want to cover a large area and not focus on specific items, it is best to use a wide-angle lens and a small lens opening.
3. When should a Class C fire extinguisher be used instead of a Class A fire extinguisher? A. When electrical equipment is on fire B. When wood and paper are on fire C. When a combustible liquid is on fire D. When the fire is in an open area
3. A. A Class C fire is an electrical fire. Thus, an extinguisher with the proper suppression agent should be used. The following table shows the fire types, their attributes, and suppression methods: Fire Class Type of Fire Elements of Fire Suppression Method A Common combustibles Wood products, paper, and laminates Water, foam B Liquid Petroleum products and coolants Gas, CO2, foam, dry powders C Electrical Electrical equipment and wires Gas, CO2, dry powders D Combustible metals Magnesium, sodium, potassium Dry powder
4. Which of the following is not a true statement about CCTV lenses? A. Lenses that have a manual iris should be used in outside monitoring. B. Zoom lenses will carry out focus functionality automatically. C. Depth of field increases as the size of the lens opening decreases. D. Depth of field increases as the focal length of the lens decreases.
4. A. Manual iris lenses have a ring around the CCTV lens that can be manually turned and controlled. A lens that has a manual iris would be used in an area that has fixed lighting, since the iris cannot self-adjust to changes of light. An auto iris lens should be used in environments where the light changes, such as an outdoor setting. As the environment brightens, this is sensed by the iris, which automatically adjusts itself. Security personnel will configure the CCTV to have a specific fixed exposure value, which the iris is responsible for maintaining. The other answers are true.
5. How does halon fight fires? A. It reduces the fire’s fuel intake. B. It reduces the temperature of the area and cools the fire out. C. It disrupts the chemical reactions of a fire. D. It reduces the oxygen in the area.
5. C. Halon is a type of gas used to interfere with the chemical reactions between the elements of a fire. A fire requires fuel, oxygen, high temperatures, and chemical reactions to burn properly. Different suppressant agents have been developed to attack each aspect of a fire: CO2 displaces the oxygen, water reduces the temperature, and soda acid removes the fuel.
6. What is a mantrap? A. A trusted security domain B. A logical access control mechanism C. A double-door facility used for physical access control D. A fire suppression device
6. C. A mantrap is a small room with two doors. The first door is locked; a person is identified and authenticated by a security guard, biometric system, smart card reader, or swipe card reader. Once the person is authenticated and access is authorized, the first door opens and allows the person into the mantrap. The first door locks and the person is trapped. The person must be authenticated again before the second door unlocks and allows him into the facility.
7. What is true about a transponder? A. It is a card that can be read without sliding it through a card reader. B. It is a passive proximity device. C. It is a card that a user swipes through a card reader to gain access to a facility. D. It exchanges tokens with an authentication server.
7. A. A transponder is a type of physical access control device that does not require the user to slide a card through a reader. The reader and card communicate directly. The card and reader have a receiver, transmitter, and battery. The reader sends signals to the card to request information. The card sends the reader an access code.
8. When is a security guard the best choice for a physical access control mechanism? A. When discriminating judgment is required B. When intrusion detection is required C. When the security budget is low D. When access controls are in place
8. A. Although many effective physical security mechanisms are on the market today, none can look at a situation, make a judgment about it, and decide what the next step should be. A security guard is employed when a company needs to have a countermeasure that can think and make decisions in different scenarios.
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an electrostatic intrusion detection system? A. It creates an electrostatic field and monitors for a capacitance change. B. It can be used as an intrusion detection system for large areas. C. It produces a balance between the electric capacitance and inductance of an object. D. It can detect if an intruder comes within a certain range of an object.
9. B. An electrostatic IDS creates an electrostatic field, which is just an electric field associated with static electric charges. The IDS creates a balanced electrostatic field between itself and the object being monitored. If an intruder comes within a certain range of the monitored object, there is capacitance change. The IDS can detect this change and sound an alarm.
10. What is a common problem with vibration-detection devices used for perimeter security? A. They can be defeated by emitting the right electrical signals in the protected area. B. The power source is easily disabled. C. They cause false alarms. D. They interfere with computing devices.
10. C. This type of system is sensitive to sounds and vibrations and detects the changes in the noise level of an area it is placed within. This level of sensitivity can cause many false alarms. These devices do not emit any waves; they only listen for sounds within an area and are considered passive devices.
11. Which of the following is an example of glare protection? A. Using automated iris lenses with short focal lengths B. Using standby lighting, which is produced by a CCTV camera C. Directing light toward entry points and away from a security force post D. Ensuring that the lighting system uses positive pressure
11. C. When lighting is installed, it should be directed toward areas where potential intruders would most likely be coming from, and directed away from the security force posts. For example, lighting should be pointed at gates or exterior access points, and the guard locations should be in the shadows, or under a lower amount of illumination. This is referred to as “glare protection” for the security force.
12. Which of the following is not a main component of CPTED? A. Natural access control B. Natural surveillance C. Territorial reinforcement D. Target hardening
12. D. Natural access control is the use of the environment to control access to entry points, such as using landscaping and bollards. An example of natural surveillance is the construction of pedestrian walkways so there is a clear line of sight of all the activities in the surroundings. Territorial reinforcement gives people a sense of ownership of a property, giving them a greater tendency to protect it. These concepts are all parts of CPTED. Target hardening has to do with implementing locks, security guards, and proximity devices.
13. Which problems may be caused by humidity in an area with electrical devices? A. High humidity causes excess electricity, and low humidity causes corrosion. B. High humidity causes corrosion, and low humidity causes static electricity. C. High humidity causes power fluctuations, and low humidity causes static electricity. D. High humidity causes corrosion, and low humidity causes power fluctuations.
13. B. High humidity can cause corrosion, and low humidity can cause excessive static electricity. Static electricity can short out devices or cause loss of information.
14. What does positive pressurization pertaining to ventilation mean? A. When a door opens, the air comes in. B. When a fire takes place, the power supply is disabled. C. When a fire takes place, the smoke is diverted to one room. D. When a door opens, the air goes out.
14. D. Positive pressurization means that when someone opens a door, the air goes out and outside air does not come in. If a facility was on fire and the doors were opened, positive pressure would cause the smoke to go out instead of being pushed back into the building.
15. Which of the following answers contains a category of controls that does not belong in a physical security program? A. Deterrence and delaying B. Response and detection C. Assessment and detection D. Delaying and lighting
15. D. The categories of controls that should make up any physical security program are deterrence, delaying, detection, assessment, and response. Lighting is a control itself, not a category of controls.
16. Which is not an administrative control pertaining to emergency procedures? A. Intrusion detection systems B. Awareness and training C. Drills and inspections D. Delegation of dutie
16. A. Awareness and training, drills and inspections, and delegation of duties are all items that have a direct correlation to proper emergency procedures. It is management’s responsibility to ensure that these items are in place, properly tested, and carried out. Intrusion detection systems are technical controls.
18. Which of the following is not considered a delaying mechanism? A. Locks B. Defense-in-depth measures C. Warning signs D. Access controls
18. C. Every physical security program should have delaying mechanisms, which have the purpose of slowing down an intruder in his activities so security personnel can be alerted and arrive at the scene. A warning sign is a deterrence control, not a delaying control.
19. What are the two general types of proximity identification devices? A. Biometric devices and access control devices B. Swipe card devices and passive devices C. Preset code devices and wireless devices D. User-activated devices and system sensing devices
19. D. A user-activated system requires the user to do something: swipe the card through the reader and/or enter a code. A system sensing device recognizes the presence of the card and communicates with it without the user needing to carry out any activity.
20. Which of the following answers best describes the relationship between a risk analysis, acceptable risk level, baselines, countermeasures, and metrics? A. The risk analysis output is used to determine the proper countermeasures required. Baselines are derived to measure these countermeasures. Metrics are used to track countermeasure performance to ensure baselines are being met. B. The risk analysis output is used to help management understand and set an acceptable risk level. Baselines are derived from this level. Metrics are used to track countermeasure performance to ensure baselines are being met. C. The risk analysis output is used to help management understand and set baselines. An acceptable risk level is derived from these baselines. Metrics are used to track countermeasure performance to ensure baselines are being met. D. The risk analysis output is used to help management understand and set an acceptable risk level. Baselines are derived from the metrics. Metrics are used to track countermeasure performance to ensure baselines are being met
20. B. The physical security team needs to carry out a risk analysis, which will identify the organization’s vulnerabilities, threats, and business impacts. The team should present these findings to management and work with them to define an acceptable risk level for the physical security program. From there, the team should develop baselines (minimum levels of security) and metrics to properly evaluate and determine whether the baselines are being met by the implemented countermeasures. Once the team identifies and implements the countermeasures, the countermeasures’ performance should be continually evaluated and expressed in the previously created metrics. These performance values are compared to the set baselines. If the baselines are continually maintained, then the security program is successful because the company’s acceptable risk level is not being exceeded.
21. Most of today’s CCTV systems use charged-coupled devices. Which of the following is not a characteristic of these devices? A. Receives input through the lenses and converts them into an electronic signal B. Captures signals in the infrared range C. Provides better-quality images D. Records data on hard drives instead of tapes
21. D. The CCD is an electrical circuit that receives input light from the lens and converts it into an electronic signal, which is then displayed on the monitor. Images are focused through a lens onto the CCD chip surface, which forms the electrical representation of the optical image. This technology allows the capture of extraordinary details of objects and precise representation because it has sensors that work in the infrared range, which extends beyond human perception. The CCD sensor picks up this extra “data” and integrates it into the images shown on the monitor, to allow for better granularity and quality in the video. CCD does not record data.
22. Which is not a drawback to installing intrusion detection and monitoring systems? A. It’s expensive to install. B. It cannot be penetrated. C. It requires human response. D. It’s subject to false alarms.
22. B. Monitoring and intrusion detection systems are expensive, require someone to respond when they set off an alarm, and, because of their level of sensitivity, can cause several false alarms. Like any other type of technology or device, they have their own vulnerabilities that can be exploited and penetrated.
23. What is a cipher lock? A. A lock that uses cryptographic keys B. A lock that uses a type of key that cannot be reproduced C. A lock that uses a token and perimeter reader D. A lock that uses a keypad
23. D. Cipher locks, also known as programmable locks, use keypads to control access into an area or facility. The lock can require a swipe card and a specific combination that’s entered into the keypad.
24. If a cipher lock has a door delay option, what does that mean? A. After a door is open for a specific period, the alarm goes off. B. It can only be opened during emergency situations. C. It has a hostage alarm capability. D. It has supervisory override capability.
24. A. A security guard would want to be alerted when a door has been open for an extended period. It may be an indication that something is taking place other than a person entering or exiting the door. A security system can have a threshold set so that if the door is open past this period, an alarm sounds.
25. Which of the following best describes the difference between a warded lock and a tumbler lock? A. A tumbler lock is more simplistic and easier to circumvent than a warded lock. B. A tumbler lock uses an internal bolt and a warded lock uses internal cylinders. C. A tumbler lock has more components than a warded lock. D. A warded lock is mainly used externally and a tumbler lock is used internally.
25. C. The tumbler lock has more pieces and parts than a warded lock. The key fits into a cylinder, which raises the lock metal pieces to the correct height so the bolt can slide to the locked or unlocked position. A warded lock is easier to circumvent than a tumbler lock.
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